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NEW QUESTION: 1
How many displays can you use with HP Z620 and Z820 workstations?
A. up to 12
B. up to 8
C. up to 6
D. up to 4
Answer: B
Explanation:
Reference:http://www8.hp.com/us/en/campaigns/workstations/z820.html

NEW QUESTION: 2
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2016 instance that contains a financial database hosted on a storage area network (SAN). The financial database has the following characteristics:
* A data file of 2 terabytes is located on a dedicated LUN (drive D).
* A transaction log of 10 GB is located on a dedicated LUN (drive E).
* Drive D has 1 terabyte of free disk space.
* Drive E has 5 GB of free disk space.
The database is continually modified by users during business hours from Monday through Friday between
09:00 hours and 17:00 hours.
Five percent of the existing data is modified each day.
The Finance department loads large CSV files into a number of tables each business day at 11:15 hours and
15:15 hours by using the BCP or BULK INSERT commands.
Each data load adds 3 GB of data to the database.
These data load operations must occur in the minimum amount of time. A full database backup is performed every Sunday at 10:00 hours.
Backup operations will be performed every two hours (11:00, 13:00, 15:00, and 17:00) during business hours.
You implement log shipping of the financial database to another SQL Server 2016 instance. You decide to failover to this secondary database.
You need to ensure that all transactions will be replicated to the secondary database.
Which backup option should you use?
A. STANDBY
B. DBO_ONLY
C. NO_CHECKSUM
D. CONTINUE_AFTER_ERROR
E. SIMPLE
F. Transaction Log
G. NORECOVERY
H. Differential
I. CHECKSUM
J. SKIP
K. RESTART
L. COPY_ONLY
M. BULK_LOGGED
N. FULL
Answer: G
Explanation:
Explanation
Roll back is controlled by the RESTORE statement through the [ RECOVERY | NORECOVERY ] options:
NORECOVERY specifies that roll back not occur. This allows roll forward to continue with the next statement in the sequence.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/restore-statements-transact-sql

NEW QUESTION: 3
Cloud X (owned by Cloud Provider X) provides Physical Server A which hosts Virtual
Servers A and B.
Virtual Server B hosts Ready-Made Environments A and B.
Cloud Service Consumer A uses Virtual Server A as part of an IaaS leasing agreement in which
Cloud Consumer A is charged a fixed monthly fee for unlimited access. Cloud Service
Consumers B and C use Ready-Made Environments A and B respectively as part of a
PaaS leasing agreement based on per-minute usage fees. In both cases, access is
monitored via Pay-For-Use Monitor A, which keeps track of log-in and log-out times in
order to calculate the usage charges that are billed to Cloud Consumers B and C.
Virtual Server A begins generating a series of exceptions. Soon thereafter, Virtual Server B
becomes destabilized, resulting in further exceptions being raised in Ready-Made
Environments A and B.
Cloud Service Consumers B and C receive a series of error
messages until both of their connections are dropped Finally, Physical Server A shuts
down completely. A subsequent investigation reveals that Virtual Server A was the victim of
a security attack performed by a malicious cloud service consumer, the attacker generated
increased loads of external communication requests on Virtual Server A and the underlying
network, causing Physical Server A (along with Virtual Server B) to eventually shut down.

Which of the following statements accurately identifies the type of security threat that
corresponds to the described attack - and -provides a solution that can directly mitigate this
type of security threat within Cloud X?
A. Virtual Server A was subjected to an insufficient authorization attack that can be
mitigated by implementing the digital signature and hardened virtual server image
mechanisms.
B. Virtual Server A was subjected to a denial of service attack that can be mitigated by
implementing the encryption and digital signature mechanisms.
C. Virtual Server A was subjected to a denial of service attack that can be mitigated by
implementing the hardened virtual server image and identity and access management
mechanisms.
D. Virtual Server A was subjected to an insufficient authorization attack that can be
mitigated by implementing the single sign-on mechanism.
Answer: C

NEW QUESTION: 4
Which three statements are correct regarding ping mpls command operations? (Choose three.)
A. MPLS OAM has to be enabled on the router using the mpls oam command.
B. They use ICMP echo request and ICMP echo reply packets.
C. They use a 127/8 address as the destination address in the MPLS echo request packet.
D. They are used to test for a broken LSP.
E. If there is a broken LSP, instead of using label switching, the packet can still be forwarded based on the destination IP address in the mpls ping echo request packet.
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
Explanation
How MPLS Ping works?
MPLS Ping doesn't rely on ICMP echo messages. Instead it uses UDP protocol with both source and destination port as 3503 and relies on MPLS Echo request and MPLS Echo reply.
When MPLS ping is triggered from any MPLS router, it will generate UDP segment with source/destination port as 3503. The source address will be selected as usual while the destination address will be 127.0.0.1. The IP TTL will be set to 1.
Below is a sample IP format when MPLS Ping is originated from R5 to 150.1.6.6/32,

Now the originating LSR will look into the LFIB and populate the label header with respective labels to reach the FEC, in our case 150.1.6.6/32.
R4 on receiving the MPLS packet will be able to send to the actual destination only if the LSP is end to end. If the LSP is broken between R4 and R6, R4 will look into the destination IP address which will be 127.0.0.1 and won't be able to perform IP forwarding. As per RFC 1812, a router should not forward any packet that has destination address of 127.0.0.0/8